erinwebsterrr
erinwebsterrr
24.09.2019 • 
English

Which statement best explains why shakespeare includes the line "beware the ides of march" in the first act of the play?
to create an ominous tone that foreshadows caesar’s fate
to reveal the specific time in which the play is set
to generate curiosity about the ides of march
to build tension and increase the audience’s interest in the play

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