How might the industrial revolution and the birth of capitalism have motivated countries to dominate other countries or regions?

During the Industrial Revolution, many inventions were invented that enabled greater, faster and more extensive production. At the same time, capitalism is developing. Capitalism implies the realization of profits made by faster and more efficient production. Faster and more efficient production is achieved, among other things, and through the use of all inventions of the industrial revolution. In addition, higher profits are generated by cheap labor, cheap raw materials. Inexpensive workforce and raw materials involve cutting costs of investment in production as much as possible. To achieve this, it is moving with dominance over other regions and underdeveloped countries, where there are small incomes, where there are abundant natural resources that can be exploited. Powerful and developed countries with developed industries always have an interest and are motivated to dominate the underdeveloped. That's what we are witnessing today as well.

(See explanation below for further details)

Explanation:

What major cities were not under Roman control in 44 BCE?

Alexandria (Egypt), which was annexed after the Battle of Actium in 30 BCE.

What areas came under Roman control between 500 BCE - 264 BCE?

Italic peninsula after defeating Gallics, Samnites, Italics and Greeks.

What areas came under Roman control between 264 BCE - 146 BCE?

Territories of the Cartaghinian Empire (South and central Spain, Tunisia and Morocco) and several Greek colonies in Sicilly and Spain. Greece.

What areas came under Roman control between 146 BCE - 44 BCE?

Territories in the Anatolia, France, Syria, Israel, Lebannon.