Were the incas or the aztecs egalitarian?

First lets get the definition of egalitarian straight. It is, summed up from the dictionary, a system of government where all were equal. This is up to debate because both tribes, kings, and peasants. But in My opinion after scouring the web the Incas were more egalitarian because they gave more representation to the people by organizing them into districts much like the present day US. The Aztecs on the other hand just had a king and the king did everything much like an absolute monarchy

The answer A, all former slaves are citizens and are equal in the eyes of the law