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chasedehlin3999
27.10.2020 •
Mathematics
Complete all parts of the problem.
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Ответ:
(a)
(b)
(c) No, because no two sets are disjoint. Why? Each of the
contain the endpoint 1, so at the very least,
for
.
(d)
(e)
(f)
because as i gets larger, the set
gets smaller. The infinite union will be equivalent to the largest set in the family of sets.
(g)
because 1 + 1/n converges to 1 as n goes to infinity, so
converges to the singleton set {1} as i goes to infinity.
Ответ:
.
Step-by-step explanation: