For a binomial experiment, is it possible for the probability of success to change from one trial to the next? I figure that the answer would be no, that as long as the trials are independent (a feature of a binomial experiment, right?), then it would not be possible for the probability of success to change, Am i understanding it correctly?

Yup you get it! (Probability doesn't change, it is constant for all trials)

Step-by-step explanation:

In binomial experiments, you have two conditions, a success and failure is how they often put it. In this experiment, the probability of success has to be the same for each trial to constitute it as a binomial experiment.

Basically there's 4 rule you need to satisfy for an experiment to be considered binomial:

1) Has to have fixed number of trials. Eg, n=1,2,3x x= finite number (we cannot have infinte trials)

2) Each trial is independent of one another. (One trial doesn't influence another trials probability/outcome)

3) Only two outcomes (very important) because as name suggests bi- (bi usually means two)

4) Probability of each outcome/condition is constant from one trial to another

50 miles

Step-by-step explanation:

Figuring this out is fairly simple, all you need to do is find out how many sets of 8 km are in 80km and multiply that number by 5. So you divide 80 by 8 and you get 10, then multiply 10 by 5 and you'll get 50. There are 50 miles in 80km.