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donttrip10
18.11.2019 •
Mathematics
If the range of f(x) = ^mx and the range of g(x) = m ^ x are the same, which statement is true about the value of m?
a) m can only equal 1.
b) m can be any positive real number.
c) m can be any negative real number.
d) m can be any real number.
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Ответ:
b) m can be any positive real number too easy XD
Step-by-step explanation:
Hope this helps!! :D
Ответ:
Step-by-step explanation:
Given that the range of f(x) = ^mx and the range of g(x) = m ^ x are the same
i.e. a^mx and m^x will have the same range.
If m =1, then we have second function as 1 and hence cannot be correct
If m <0 and a>0 then I function will be positive while second function negative. So range cannot be equal
If m is any real number then same argument for negative number makes this false.
If m>0, and a>0 then a^mx and also m^x will be positive and hence range is R+ including 0
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