Suppose that there is a 1 in 50 chance of injury on a single skydiving attempt A friend claims if there is a 1 in 50 chance of injury on a single jump then there is a 100% chance of injury if a skydiver jumps 50 times. Is your friend correct? Why?

He is incorrect, there is a 63.58% of at least one injury occurring in 50 jumps.

Step-by-step explanation:

He is incorrect, in his flawed reasoning, your friend simply multiplying the likelihood of an event by the number of trials. In this case, the real probability of an injury in 50 jumps is given by 100% minus the probability of no injuries occurring in 50 jumps. For each jump, there is a 49 in 50 chance that no injury happens, therefore:

There is a 63.58% of at least one injury occurring in 50 jumps.

I think he could do that answer right because it's like going up and down