thechameleonnaire
19.03.2020 •
Mathematics
Which of the following explains why f(x) = logix
does not have a y-intercept? Check all that apply.
There is no power of 4 that is equal to 0.
There is no power of 4 that is equal to 1.
Its inverse does not have any x-intercepts.
Its inverse does not have any y-intercepts.
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