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AaronEarlMerringer
23.06.2019 •
Social Studies
Norman jones, an economic historian at the university of utah, has described the views of the ancient greek philosopher aristotle on interest: aristotle defined money as a good that was consumed by use. unlike houses and fields, which are not destroyed by use, money must be spent to be used. there- fore, as we cannot rent food, so we cannot rent money. moreover, money does not reproduce. a house or a flock can produce new value by use, so it is not unreasonable to ask for a return on their use. money, being barren, should not, therefore, be expected to produce excess value. thus, interest is unnatural. what did aristotle mean in arguing that money is “barren”? why would money being barren mean that lenders should not charge interest on loans? do you agree with aristotle’s reasoning? briefly explain.
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Ответ:
This technique is persuasive because, in Gordimer’s essay she explains that people of color take the jobs that no white man wants and that they are not allowed in any bar, club, and etc. And that no woman is allowed either. And she does a very good job in explaining what people of color and women went through at the time and how they couldn’t do what white man could. A white man could do jobs that wouldn’t allow any woman or colored person to do. A white man could vote and be seen in a bar and have more freedom and rights than a colored person and a woman could have. And a white man could be in the military or get paid more than a colored person or woman. A black man could vote but, it wouldn’t count and women were not allowed to vote.
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