Q. which of the following best describes why the fairness doctrine (with the exception of the "political editorial" and "personal attack" rules) did not control cable television?
a. cable television was entirely outside the control of the fcc because, in theory, there was no limit to the number of people who could participate in the industry. the fcc existed only to control the business side of the communication industry, rather than the actual content itself.
b. the fcc had already repealed the fairness doctrine in the 1960s due to several court cases brought about in light of the coverage of the vietnam war.
c. the original intent of the fairness doctrine didn't apply to cable because, unlike with broadcast, there was no limit to the number of licenses that could be purchased. as cable became popular, parts of the doctrine were repealed.

The original intent of the Fairness Doctrine didn't apply to cable because, unlike with broadcast, there was no limit to the number of licenses that could be purchased. As cable became popular, parts of the doctrine were repealed.

The option that best describes why the Fairness Doctrine (with the exception of the "political editorial" and "personal attack" rules) did not control cable television is "The original intent of the Fairness Doctrine didn't apply to cable because, unlike with broadcast, there was no limit to the number of licenses that could be purchased. As cable became popular, parts of the doctrine were repealed."

Explanation:

The Fairness Doctrine demands media and communication to give equal time to different opinion and point of view in their broadcasting, it also control the kind of content that is showed in the networks, but as the use of cable tv made the quantity of users and the kind of material the companies broadcast hast to control in every aspect it became out of range from the doctrine.

It's D. Just passed test on Edgen falling asleep over here but it's D.