Which sentence in this expert shows that the speeches address to a primarily female audience

A. Gender neutral 
B. Historically, this would indicate the SPEAKER is a female, but with today's same-sex marriages, this is no longer the case. Today, the remainder of the sentence notwithstanding, the speaker could well be a male. The speaker uses the word "we," which some would take to indicate that the audience is the same gender as the speaker. So again, historically, "we" might have been intended to apply to a female speaker and a female audience. However, again, both assumptions may well be false. 
C. Gender neutral. 
D. Gender neutral. The speaker/audience could be poor men in shoddy togas, referring to "gentlemen" inexpensive togas. 
E. Gender neutral. 

I don't think, based on these statements, that a reasonably intelligent person can confidently assume that ANY of these audiences is primarily female. That is why the speaker should not imply; the speaker should state explicitly if whether he/she is referring to women, or to men -- not to their roles in society, or their mode of dress, or their sensibilities.

5 points? thanks

Explanation: