A financial economist is studying married couples in which both spouses work. He wants to compare the mean income earned by husbands with the mean income earned by their wives. Should he use independent sampling or dependent sampling, and why?

Independent sampling. The two spouses are separate people with different jobs, so the husband's income doesn't depend on his wife's income.
-Independent sampling. How he selects the husband is independent of how he selects the wife.
Dependent sampling. The husband's income depends to some degree on his wife's income.
Dependent sampling. He needs to select couples for his sample, so whether a particular wife is included depends on whether her husband is included.

Ideally the researcher should use independent sampling

Step-by-step explanation: Independent samples are samples that are independently selected. This means its observations do not depend on the values other observations. While dependent samples (also called paired samples) are that have dependent or related values. Basically dependent samples. Dependent samples occur when you have two samples that do affect one another. independent samples. Independent samples occur when you have two samples that do not affect one another.

Ideally the researcher should use independent sampling because (as stated in the question) the husband and wife are different people with different jobs even though they're married. We assume this because the question doesn't suggest otherwise or give any other details.

You could use dependent sampling but you would be assuming that what they earn as individuals depends on their marriage. (For example if the wife spends more time with the kids she would be unable to work over time at work this affecting her earnings, the husband and wife own a business they both work in etc.)

im sure ur nice too if all

Step-by-step explanation: