Mathematics: can someone explain?

ମୁଁ ତୁମକୁ ଭଲପାଏ !Step-by-step explanation:...

can someone explain? - id10159642, AshlynPlayz45

mahmudabiazp3ekot

16.03.2022

Given:

Total cites are $1\dfrac{1}{2}$ inches apart on the map.

Scale of the map is $\dfrac{1}{2}\text{ inch }=40\text{ miles}$

To find:

The actual distance between two cities.

Solution:

Distance between two cities on map = $1\dfrac{1}{2}$ inches

= $\dfrac{1(2)+1}{2}$ inches

= $\dfrac{3}{2}$ inches

We have,

$\dfrac{1}{2}\text{ inch }=40\text{ miles}$

Multiply both sides by 3.

$\dfrac{3}{2}\text{ inch }=3\times 40\text{ miles}$

$\dfrac{3}{2}\text{ inch }=120\text{ miles}$

So, the actual distance between two cities is 120 miles.

Therefore, the correct option is D.

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