Can you please explain to me how they got -1/2 I’m studying and exam is tmrw pls urgent!

Sorry idk

Step-by-step explanation:

Hence, Stacy will spin 6,  8.33 times out of her n = 50 attempts.

Step-by-step explanation:

Let us consider a success to get a 6. In this case, note that the probability of having a 6 in one spin is 1/6. We can consider the number of 6's in 50 spins to be a binomial random variable. Then, let X to be the number of trials we get a 6 out of 50 trials. Then, we have the following model.

We will estimate the number of times that she spins a 6 as the expected value of this random variable.

Recall that if we have X as a binomial random variable of n trials with a probability of success of p, then it's expected value is np.

Then , in this case, with n=50 and p=1/6 we expect to have  number of times of having a 6, which is 8.33.