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bacon950
bacon950
26.11.2019 • 
English

How would the meaning of the following passage change if wiesel used the word “pain” instead of “anguish”?

"yet, for the person who is indifferent, his or her neighbor are of no their hidden or even visible anguish is of no interest. indifference reduces the other to an abstraction."

question 2 options:

a) “pain” is a stronger word.

b) “anguish” implies a more manageable type of suffering.

c) “anguish” carries more intense connotations, so using that word instead of “pain” raises the intensity of the passage.

d) “anguish” implies a level of confusion along with the suffering, whereas “pain” does not.

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