Which equation demonstrates that use of a simple interest formula , l=prt , to compute the investment earned on $70 at 3% for 12 years ?

I = (70) x (0.03) x (12)

Step-by-step explanation:

The general formula of simple interest formula is:  I = PRT where I = simple interest, P = principal amount, R = interest rate, T = time (in years).  Given that the initial investment is $70, the interest rate is 3% (or 0.03 as a decimal) and the time is 12 years, you can form the following:  

I = (70) x (0.03) x (12)

1) The theoretical probability (likelihood) of getting two heads is 1 in 4  (.25). 1/4= .25= 25%

2) The experimental probability (likelihood)  of getting two heads is 17 in 100 (.17) 17/100=.17=17%

3) The theoretical probability (likelihood)  of getting two tails is also 1 in 4 (.25). 1/4= .25= 25%

4) The experimental probability (likelihood)  of getting two tails is 11 in 100 (.11) 11/100= .11= 11%

5) However, the theoretical probability (likelihood) of getting one head and one tail (in any order) is 2 in 4  (.5). 1/2=.5=.50=50%

A) But, the theoretical probability (likelihood) of getting one head and one tail (in the order of one head and one tail) is 2/4 (.5) 1/2=.5=.50=50%

B) But, the theoretical probability (likelihood) of getting one head and one tail (in the order of one tail and one head) is 2/4 (.5) 1/2=.5=.50=50%

6) The experimental probability that a coin toss results in one head and one tail showing (in any order is ) is 72 in 100 (.72) 72/100= .72= 72%

A) But, the theoretical probability (likelihood) of getting one head and one tail (in the order of one head and one tail) is 31 in 100 (.31) 31/100= .31= 31%

B) But, the theoretical probability (likelihood) of getting one head and one tail (in the order of one tail and one head) is 41 in 100 (.41) 41/100= .41= 41%

7)  Compering the theoretical probabilities to my experimental probabilities. They are there are  difference because for question 1-4 the theoretical probabilities are is higher then the experimental probability because question  1-2,  the experimental probability is 8 less then the theoretical probability, and in question 3-4 the experimental probability is 14 less then the theoretical probability, But in 5 - 6 the experimental probability is more then the theoretical probability because 5-6 the experimental probability is 22 more then the theoretical probability, But in A and A you got 31 in the order of one head and one tail for the experimental probability and 50 in the order of one head and one tail, and in B and B you got 41 for in the order of one tail and one head for the experimental probability  and 50 in the order of one tail and one head.    

Step-by-step explanation:

Theoretical probability is based on the likelihood of events.  It is the ratio of successes to the total number of cases.  For flipping a coin once, the theoretical probability of it coming up heads is .5 and the probability of it coming up tails is .5 (assuming it will never land on its edge and stay that way).The problem statement must mean “tossing a coin twice” or “tossing two coins.”  So, let’s list all the most likely cases that can occur with two coins: HH, HT, TH,  TT. Although experimental probability may differ from theoretical probability, it is not be too much different