A 48-year-old man who has been HIV positive for 6 years has just learned that he has been diagnosed with Kaposi sarcoma (KS). Which fact most accurately conveys an aspect of his diagnosis?

Hello! I figured that your question was lacking its options so I went to look for them online. Here they are:

A) He is likely to have lesions on his skin, mouth or GI tract.

B) Heterosexual contact most likely underlies his HIV and subsequent KS.

C) An opportunistic Epstein-Barr virus underlies the man's KS.

D) Intense pain was probably his first manifestation of KS

The correct answer is: A) He is likely to have lesions on his skin, mouth or GI tract.

Explanation:

Kaposi's sarcoma is a type of opportunistic infection (meaning that is much more likely to occur in immunocompromised people) that causes a tumor on the skin that presents itself with purplish spots on the neck and head, and can also appear in the gastrointestinal tract and the lungs.

Men who engage sexually with other men are at a higher risk of HIV and SK than men who do so with women.